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1. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.
B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec tunnels.
C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.
D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.
E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.
F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per second (kBps).
Answer: CE

2. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)
A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).
B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby APs.
C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.
D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.
E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.
Answer: BD

3. Which two statements are true about the function of CAC? (Choose two.)
A. CAC provides guaranteed voice quality on a link.
B. CAC artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls.
C. CAC is used to control the amount of bandwidth that is taken by a call on a link.
D. CAC prevents oversubscription of WAN resources that is caused by too much voice traffic.
E. CAC allows an unlimited number of voice calls while severely restricting, if necessary, other forms of traffic.
F. CAC solves voice congestion problems by using QoS to give priority to UDP traffic.
Answer: BD

4. Which two statements are true about the implementation of QoS? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing DiffServ involves the configuration of RSVP.
B. Implementing IntServ allows QoS to be performed by configuring only the ingress and egress devices.
C. Implementing IntServ involves the utilization of RSVP.
D. Traffic should be classified and marked by the core network devices.
E. Traffic should be classified and marked as close to the edge of the network as possible.
Answer: CE

5. Which codec standard would provide the highest voice-quality, mean opinion score (MOS)?
A. G.711, PCM
B. G.728, LDCELP
C. G.729, CS-ACELP
D. G.729A, CS-ACELP
Answer: A
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Cisco 642-359 exam

Title:Implementing Cisco Storage Network Solutions

Questions and Answers : 78 Q&As

Update Time: 2009-10-20

Download Certinside the latest Cisco 642-359 demo:

1. While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/1.2 appears in the output. What does this mean?

A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.

B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.

C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2.

D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.

Answer: B

2. The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series fabric switches can support this HBA?

A. F

B. TE

C. FL

D. N

E. E

Answer: C

3. For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)

A. iSCSI node name

B. host name

C. IPv4 address and subnet

D. MAC address

E. IPv6 address

F. iSCSI WWN

Answer: ACE

4. What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?

A. fabric locked during configuration changes

B. larger zoning database size

C. database rollback in case of failure

D. zones allowed to span VSANs

Answer: A

5. How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?

A. 126

B. 127

C. 255

D. 256

Answer: B

6. Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose three.)

A. Port indexes have been taken offline.

B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.

C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.

D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.

E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.

F. Not enough port indexes are available.

Answer: BCF

7. Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?

A. Cisco Performance Manager

B. RMON

C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer

D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer

Answer: C

8. Why would you use the fcanalyzer command?

A. to ensure that Fibre Channel configuration settings are synchronized across all switches in the fabric

B. to identify common configuration errors in the fabric

C. to nondisruptively capture and decode Fibre Channel control frames

D. to decode and analyze Fibre Channel frames and ordered sets on a link

Answer: C

9. Which two features help you verify connectivity between host and storage devices? (Choose two.)

A. fcanalyzer

B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer

C. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis

D. Zone Merge Analysis

E. fcping

Answer: CE

10. Which feature detects hardware faults and attempts recovery actions?

A. Switch Health Analysis

B. Fabric Configuration Analysis

C. Online Health Management System

D. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis

E. Cisco Fabric Services

Answer: C

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IBM COG-112 exam

Title : IBM Cognos 8 BI Author

Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As

Update Time: 2009-10-19

1. An author wants to apply formatting to a list report. In Report Studio, the author clicks a column in the list,

clicks Select Ancestor, and then clicks List Columns. In this situation, which of the following is true?

A. Formatting all columns will also format aggregate rows in the list.

B. Formatting all columns overrides formatting for an existing formatted column in the list.

C. Formatting all columns affects all subsequent objects added to the report page.

D. Formatting all columns ensures any new columns added to the list will have the same formatting.

Answer: D

2. In Report Studio, what is a baseline?

A. A value in a list report that other values are compared against.

B. A border in a crosstab that separates measures from aggregate totals.

C. A constant value drawn on a chart to indicate major divisions in the data.

D. A break point that keeps part of a report stationary while the user scrolls.

Answer: C

3. In Report Studio, which chart lets the report author plot a third measure?

A. Area

B. Bubble

C. Scatter

D. Progressive Column

Answer: B

4. In Report Studio, an author wants to change the location of the legend in the chart report. What property

will accomplish this?

A. Auto Truncation

B. Axis Assignment

C. Absolute Position

D. Relative Alignment

Answer: C

5. In Report Studio, an author is using a relationally modeled package and wants to filter a report to only

include three specific products. If the author is not sure how to spell the product names, what is the fastest

way to add the product names to the filter expression?

A. Run the report with all product names and copy the product names.

B. Use the Select Multiple Values feature to search for the product names.

C. Add the product names from the Source tab in the Available components pane.

D. Add the product names from the Data Items tab in the Available components pane.

Answer: B

Oracle 1Z0-007 exam

Title : Introduction to Oracle9i:SQL

Questions and Answers : 129 Q&As

Update Time: 2009-10-19

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1. What does the FORCE option for creating a view do?

A.creates a view with constraints

B.creates a view even if the underlying parent table has constraints

C.creates a view in another schema even if you don’t have privileges

D.creates a view regardless of whether or not the base tables exist

Answer: D

2. What are two reasons to create synonyms? (Choose two.)

A.You have too many tables.

B.Your tables are too long.

C.Your tables have difficult names.

D.You want to work on your own tables.

E.You want to use another schema’s tables.

F.You have too many columns in your tables.

Answer: CE

3. The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:

STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)

SEMESTER_END DATE

GPA NUMBER(4,3)

The registrar requested a report listing the students’ grade point averages (GPA) sorted from highest grade

point average to lowest.

Which statement produces a report that displays the student ID and GPA in the sorted order requested by

the registrar?

A.SELECT student_id, gpa

FROM student_grades

ORDER BY gpa ASC;

B.SELECT student_id, gpa

FROM student_grades

SORT ORDER BY gpa ASC;

C.SELECT student_id, gpa

FROM student_grades

SORT ORDER BY gpa;

D.SELECT student_id, gpa

FROM student_grades

ORDER BY gpa;

E.SELECT student_id, gpa

FROM student_grades

SORT ORDER BY gpa DESC;

F.SELECT student_id, gpa

FROM student_grades

ORDER BY gpa DESC;

Answer: F

4. In which three cases would you use the USING clause? (Choose three.)

A.You want to create a nonequijoin.

B.The tables to be joined have multiple NULL columns.

C.The tables to be joined have columns of the same name and different data types.

D.The tables to be joined have columns with the same name and compatible data types.

E.You want to use a NATURAL join, but you want to restrict the number of columns in the join condition.

Answer: CDE

5. The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:

CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL

CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL

STREET_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)

CITY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)

STATE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)

PROVINCE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)

COUNTRY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)

POSTAL_CODE VARCHAR2(12)

CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)

The CUSTOMER_ID column is the primary key for the table.

You need to determine how dispersed your customer base is. Which expression finds the number of

different countries represented in the CUSTOMERS table?

A.COUNT(UPPER(country_address))

B.COUNT(DIFF(UPPER(country_address)))

C.COUNT(UNIQUE(UPPER(country_address)))

D.COUNT DISTINCT UPPER(country_address)

E.COUNT(DISTINCT (UPPER(country_address)))

Answer: E

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